I’ve argued many times that φιλέω/phleo and ἀγαπάω/agapao are used interchangeably throughout the NT. Both verbs mean “I love”. Most people are familiar with the cognate noun of ἀγαπάω which is ἀγάπη/agape. Does John interchange these verbs?
Let’s take a look at John 5:20:
20 ὁ γὰρ πατὴρ φιλεῖ τὸν υἱὸν καὶ πάντα δείκνυσιν αὐτῷ ἃ αὐτὸς ποιεῖ, καὶ μείζονα τούτων δείξει αὐτῷ ἔργα, ἵνα ὑμεῖς θαυμάζητε.
20 For the Father loves the son and shows him all things which he himself does. He (God) will show him (the son) greater works than these, so that you may be amazed.
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